mis 10-13

25) Which of the following is true?
a) Transactions are only critical to the area they occur in.
b) Transactions can only involve one database.
c) Transactions can only involve one computer.
d) The actual processing of a Transaction has to be standard.
e) Transactions generate a small volume of data.
d
26) Which of the following is false?
a) Corporate data is supplied by Transaction processing systems.
b) Information systems are only used by large organizations.
c) Reports from information systems are used in all levels of the organization.
d) Data from TPS systems feeds ERP systems.
e) Information systems within an organization support internal and external processes.
b
27) Organizational transactions are typically _____ volume, _____, and therefore _____ to computerize.
a) low, repetitive, difficult
b) high, repetitive, easy
c) high, different, difficult
d) low, different, easy
e) high, different, easy
b
28) Business transactions that are processed as they occur is an example of

a) batch processing
b) source data automation
c) OLTP
d) TPS
e) ESS

c
29) The most fundamental information systems in an organization are:
a) office automation systems
b) decision support systems
c) functional area information systems
d) Transaction processing systems
e) business intelligence systems
d
30) When interest is credited to your savings account at your bank, it is called a:
a) process
b) function
c) calculation
d) Transaction
e) decision
d
31) Crediting interest to your savings account at your bank once a month, it is called a:
a) process
b) function
c) calculation
d) Transaction
e) decision
a
32) When interest is credited to your savings account at your bank, it is called a:
a) process
b) function
c) calculation
d) Transaction
e) decision
d
33) Data that have been processed by the organization’s _____ are inputs into the organization’s database.
a) office automation systems
b) functional area information systems
c) Transaction processing systems
d) decision support systems
e) digital dashboards
c
34) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transaction processing system?
a) small amounts of data are processed
b) sources of data are mainly internal
c) low computation complexity
d) high level of accuracy, data integrity, and security
e) high level of detail
a
35) Which of the following is not an example of a transaction?
a) A person hired
b) A payroll check generated
c) A service sold
d) Printing a report
e) Checking out at Walmart
d
36) Which of the following is false?
a) TPS need large computers to process the transactions.
b) Business transactions can be processed when they occur.
c) Business transactions can be processed after they occur.
d) Data for transactions can be collected by sensors.
e) A transaction is a business event.
a
37) Which of the following is not a function of functional area information systems?
a) providing information to managers in the functional areas
b) supporting the managerial tasks of planning, organizing, and controlling operations
c) providing information mainly in the form of reports
d) providing data from business events to the corporate database
e) providing analysis capabilities to middle level managers and staff
d
38) Which of the following is not a process within an information system for Accounting and Finance?
a) Budgeting
b) Managing Currencies
c) Inventory management
d) Auditing
e) Expense management
c
39) Which of the following is not a process within an information system for Human Resource Management?
a) Benefits administration
b) Firing decisions
c) Peer evaluations
d) Recruitment
e) Training
b
40) Which of the following is false?
a) Inventory management determines how much inventory to order.
b) Large companies allow their vendors to manage their inventory.
c) The POM function within an organization monitors sales.
d) Quality control used by manufacturing units uses metrics.
e) Computer systems are used to integrate all aspects of product design.
c
41) Which of the following is false?
a) ERP systems are an evolution of functional information systems.
b) ERP systems look the same to users as functional information systems.
c) ERP systems have much the same functionality as functional information systems.
d) ERP systems produce the same reports as functional information systems.
e) ERP systems use the same data as functional information systems.
b
42) Enterprise resource planning systems take a(n) _____ view of the overall organization.
a) User’s
b) Management
c) Functional
d) Business process
e) Transactional
d
43) _____ integrate the planning, management, and use of all of an organization’s resources, and are designed to tightly integrate the functional areas of the organization.
a) Transaction processing systems
b) Supply chain management systems
c) Functional area information systems
d) Enterprise resource planning systems
e) Corporate extranets
d
44) Which of the following is false?
a) Functional area information systems were usually developed independently.
b) Functional area information systems easily communicate with each other.
c) ERP systems are designed to integrate business processes.
d) ERP systems use a common database.
e) ERP systems integrate functional areas within an organization.
b
45) The characteristics of ERP systems include all of the following except:
a) integrating the planning, management, and use of all resources of the organization
b) providing information necessary to control the business processes of the organization
c) including a set of interdependent software modules
d) typically fitting an organization’s existing business processes
e) they are expensive and time-consuming
d
46) Enterprise resource planning systems are very _____ software products, meaning that companies typically have to change their _____ to accommodate how the software functions.
a) unstructured, business processes
b) structured, reporting relationships
c) structured, accounting processes
d) unstructured, inventory control
e) structured, business processes
e
47) _____ are interorganizational ERP systems that provide Web-enabled links between an organization’s key business systems and its customers, suppliers, business partners, and others.
a) Functional area information systems
b) Supply chain management systems
c) Transaction processing systems
d) Office automation systems
e) ERP II systems
e
48) _____ are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods for achieving a business objective.
a) Business functions
b) Best practices
c) Optimal strategies
d) Business processes
e) Enterprise solutions
b
49) The drawbacks of ERP systems include all of the following except:
a) They are complex
b) They are expensive
c) They are time-consuming to implement
d) Companies may need to change existing business processes to fit the software
e) They consist of modules
e
50) Which of the following was not included in early ERP systems?
a) Sales and Marketing
b) Inventory Control
c) Order Entry
d) Distribution
e) Raw materials management
a
51) Which of the following is false about ERP II systems?
a) They utilize the Web.
b) They include human resources processes.
c) Functionality is delivered as e-business suites.
d) They support internal- facing applications as well as external-facing applications.
e) These ERP systems have no optional modules.
e
52) Which of the following is false?
a) Breaking down functional silos makes an organization more adaptive.
b) An organization doesn’t have to use the business processes coded into the ERP.
c) ERP systems change an organization’s business processes.
d) ERP systems are time consuming to implement.
e) ERP systems require functional areas to work together.
b
53) Which of the following has not been identified as a reason for ERP implementation failure?
a) Failure to include affected employees in planning
b) The complexity of the planning
c) Lack of documentation
d) Insufficient training
e) No change management processes
c
54) Which of the following is true?
a) Implementing an ERP system will maintain a competitive advantage.
b) Implementing an ERP system will allow a company to operate faster than their competition.
c) The IT costs of an ERP implementation goes down over time.
d) Customizing an ERP system is permitted.
e) The benefits of an ERP implementation go down over time.
d
55) _____ reports contain special information not found in routine reports.
a) Ad hoc
b) Summary
c) Drill-down
d) Key-indicator
e) Exception
a
56) _____ reports are produced at scheduled intervals.
a) Ad hoc
b) Routine
c) Exception
d) Detailed
e) Key indicator
b
57) _____ reports summarize the performance of critical activities.
a) Ad hoc
b) Routine
c) Exception
d) Detailed
e) Key indicator
e
58) When the chief financial officer of a company wants a report on business units who have spent 10 percent more than their allotted budget, she would be requesting which type of report?
a) Ad hoc
b) Routine
c) Exception
d) Detailed
e) Key indicator
c
59) _____ reports include only information that falls outside certain threshold standards.
a) Ad hoc
b) Routine
c) Exception
d) Detailed
e) Key indicator
c
60) To effectively manage by exception (i.e., use exception reports), the company must first create:
a) performance standards
b) best practices
c) user information requirements
d) a database
e) employee evaluation guides
a
33) Over time, the customer relationship with vendors has become more impersonal for all of the following reasons except:
a) people move from farms to cities
b) consumers became mobile
c) supermarkets and department stores proliferated
d) customer relationship management systems were developed
e) the Internet grew rapidly
d
34) Which of the following best describes CRM?
a) a process
b) a set of technologies
c) an information system
d) a way of thinking and acting
e) a set of decisions
d
35) Which of the following is an important enabler of CRM?
a) recognizing that there are many customer touch points
b) recognizing the necessity of treating all customers the same
c) recognizing the need for sophisticated CRM information systems
d) recognizing the need for sophisticated customer databases
e) recognizing the need for a data warehouse
a
36) Which of the following is not a customer touch point?
a) telephone contact
b) e-mail
c) Web sites
d) customer visits to a store
e) none of these – all are touch points
e
37) The complete data on a customer is called:
a) a profile
b) a record
c) a 360-degree view
d) a file
e) a consolidated customer map
c
38) Which of the following is the most important enabler of the 360-degree view of the customer across an organization?
a) the organization’s database
b) the organization’s data warehouse
c) the organization’s CRM systems
d) the organization’s collaborative CRM systems
e) the organization’s analytical CRM systems
b
39) Which of the following statements is false?
a) Data consolidation and 360-degree view mean the same thing.
b) Data about customers in various functional areas was difficult to share.
c) Collaborative CRM systems enable customers to provide direct feedback to the organization
d) CRM systems use a data warehouse to make all customer data available to every unit of the business.
e) Organizations can use blogs for customer input about their products and services.
a
40) _____ systems support the front-office business processes which directly interact with customers.
a) CRM
b) Collaborative CRM
c) Operational CRM
d) Analytical CRM
e) Transactional CRM
c
41) _____ includes those areas where customers directly interact with the company.
a) CRM
b) Analytical CRM
c) Customer-facing CRM
d) Customer-touching CRM
e) Transactional CRM
c
42) Which of the follow statements is false about customer interaction centers (CIC)?
a) A call center is an example of a CIC.
b) A Help Desk is an example of a CIC.
c) In outboard telesales the sales person contacts the customer.
d) In inboard telesales the customer calls the CIC.
e) Live chat provides an advantage over telephone conversations.
d
43) The sales, marketing, and service functions are part of:
a) CRM
b) analytical CRM
c) operational CRM
d) collaborative CRM
e) transactional CRM
c
44) In _____, company representatives use multiple communication channels to support the communications preferences of customers.
a) telesales rooms
b) group decision support rooms
c) videoconferencing centers
d) sales team meetings
e) customer interaction centers
e
45) _____ is the component of an operational CRM system that automatically records all the aspects in a sales transaction process.
a) Inbound telesales
b) Outbound telesales
c) Sales team efforts
d) Sales force automation
e) The customer help desk
d
46) _____ is the practice of marketing additional related products to customers based on a previous purchase.
a) Bundling
b) Up-selling
c) Re-selling
d) Additional selling
e) Cross-selling
e
47) AT&T sells telephone services that include local and long-distance service, voice mail service, caller ID, and digital subscriber line access to the Internet. This is a form of:
a) up-selling
b) cross-selling
c) bundling
d) customer relationship management
e) customer intimacy
c
48) You are in the market for a small economy car. The salesperson has you drive the economy car, and then hands you the keys to a mid-size car of the same brand for you to drive. The salesperson is engaged in:
a) up-selling
b) cross-selling
c) bundling
d) customer relationship management
e) customer intimacy
a
49) _____ is a sales strategy where the business person will provide to customers the opportunity to purchase higher-value related products.
a) Bundling
b) Up-selling
c) Re-selling
d) Additional selling
e) Cross-selling
b
50) _____ is a form of _____.
a) Up-selling, re-selling
b) Bundling, cross-selling
c) Up-selling, bundling
d) Cross-selling, re-selling
e) Re-selling, additional selling
b
51) A check-in kiosk at the airport would be what type of CRM application?
a) Inbound telesales
b) Customer touching
c) Outbound telesales
d) Sales
e) Customer facing
b
52) _____ are simple tools for answering repetitive customer questions.
a) Personalized Web pages
b) Customized products and services
c) Frequently asked questions
d) E-mail systems
e) Automated response systems
c
53) Which of the following statements about loyalty programs is false?
a) Loyalty programs work when there is a high frequency of repeat purchases.
b) Loyalty programs work when there is not personal customization.
c) The purpose of loyalty programs is to influence future behavior.
d) The purpose of loyalty programs is to reward past behavior
e) Loyalty programs are a customer-touching application
d
54) _____ systems study customer behavior and perceptions to provide business intelligence.
a) CRM
b) Collaborative CRM
c) Operational CRM
d) Analytical CRM
e) Transactional CRM
d
55) _____ creates statistical models of customer behavior and the value of customer relationships over time.
a) CRM
b) Analytical CRM
c) Operational CRM
d) Collaborative CRM
e) Transactional CRM
b
56) _____ is a CRM system that is hosted by an external vendor in the vendor’s data center.
a) Mobile CRM
b) Analytical CRM
c) Operational CRM
d) On-demand CRM
e) Customer-facing CRM
d
57) Potential problems with on-demand CRM include all of the following except:
a) increases costs for the organization
b) vendor could prove unreliable
c) difficult to modify hosted software
d) may be difficult to integrate hosted software with existing software in the organization
e) giving strategic data to a vendor is risky
a
58) The benefits of open-source CRM include all of the following except:
a) it is easy to customize
b) it is favorably priced
c) it has more functionality than in-house CRM systems
d) updates and error fixes occur rapidly
e) it has extensive support information available
c
59) Trends that have led to the supply chain concept include all of the following except:
a) modern organizations are focusing on their core competencies
b) modern organizations are concentrating on becoming more agile and flexible
c) modern organizations are buying their suppliers in order to have more transparency along the supply chain
d) modern organizations are relying on other companies to supply necessary goods and services
e) modern organizations are relying on an increasing number of suppliers
c
60) _____ is the ability for all organizations in a supply chain to access or view relevant data on purchased materials as these materials move through their suppliers’ production processes and transportation networks to their receiving docks.
a) Supply chain visibility
b) Horizontal integration
c) Vertical integration
d) Supply chain intelligence
e) Supply chain integration
a
61) _____ is the time between the receipt of incoming goods and the dispatch of finished, outbound products.
a) Inventory turnover
b) Inventory velocity
c) Inventory speed
d) Inventory time
e) Inventory production
b
62) A(n) _____ refers to the flow of materials, information, money, and services from raw material suppliers, through factories and warehouses to the end customers.
a) demand chain
b) business process
c) manufacturing process
d) supply chain
e) enterprise resource process
d
63) A company’s suppliers, suppliers’ suppliers, and the processes for managing them is the:
a) suppliers’ chain
b) external supply chain
c) upstream portion of the supply chain
d) downstream portion of the supply chain
e) entire supply chain
c
64) Packaging, assembly, or manufacturing take place in which segment of the supply chain?
a) upstream
b) internal
c) downstream
d) external
e) none of these
b
65) A company’s organization and processes for distributing and delivering products to its final customers is the:
a) suppliers’ chain
b) external supply chain
c) upstream portion of the supply chain
d) downstream portion of the supply chain
e) entire supply chain
d
66) Distribution or dispersal takes place in which segment of the supply chain?
a) upstream
b) internal
c) downstream
d) external
e) none of these
c
67) _____ are the physical products, raw materials, and supplies that flow along a supply chain.
a) Reverse flows
b) Reverse logistics
c) Material flows
d) Information flows
e) Financial flows
c
68) Returned products, recycled products, and disposal of materials or products are called:
a) reverse flows
b) returns
c) material flows
d) information flows
e) financial flows
a
69) _____ involve money transfers, payments, credit card information and authorization, payment schedules, e-payments, and credit-related data.
a) Reverse flows
b) Reverse logistics
c) Material flows
d) Information flows
e) Financial flows
e
70) Which of the following is not a goal of supply chain management?
a) to reduce uncertainty along the supply chain
b) to decrease inventory levels
c) to increase cycle time
d) to improve customer service
e) to improve business processes
c
71) Interorganizational information systems result in all of the following except:
a) reduced costs of routine business transactions
b) improved quality of information flow
c) reduced errors
d) increased cycle time
e) eliminated paper processing
d
72) In the _____, the production process begins with a forecast.
a) supply chain model
b) inventory model
c) pull model
d) vertical integration model
e) push model
e
73) In the _____, the production process begins with a customer order.
a) supply chain model
b) inventory model
c) pull model
d) vertical integration model
e) push model
c
74) Which of the following is not a problem along the supply chain?
a) poor customer service
b) high inventory costs
c) loss of revenues
d) decreased cycle times
e) extra cost of expediting shipments
d
75) The _____ is erratic shifts in orders up and down the supply chain.
a) demand forecast effect
b) supply forecast effect
c) bullwhip effect
d) inventory effect
e) customer coordination effect
c
76) The bullwhip effect comes from which of the following?
a) poor demand forecast
b) price fluctuations
c) order batching
d) rationing within the supply chain
e) all of these
e
77) Which of the following is not responsible for the bullwhip effect?
a) poor demand forecast
b) price fluctuations
c) order batching
d) rationing within the supply chain
e) poor supply forecast
e
78) Which of the following is not a possible solution to supply chain problems?
a) vertical integration
b) building inventories
c) information sharing
d) horizontal integration
e) the bullwhip effect
d
79) When Wal-Mart sells a package of diapers, the company captures data on that sale at its point-of-sale terminal and transmits that data to the company that makes the diapers. When it is necessary, the diaper company restocks the diapers in that Wal-Mart store. This process is called:
a) supply chain management
b) demand chain management
c) vendor-managed inventory
d) enterprise resource planning inventory
e) just-in-time inventory
c
80) Which of the following is not a benefit of EDI?
a) data entry errors are minimized
b) length of messages is longer
c) messages are secured
d) fosters collaborative relationships
e) reduced cycle time
b
81) Which of the following is not a limitation of EDI?
a) it is inflexible
b) business processes may have to be restructured
c) it is expensive, but ongoing operating costs are low
d) multiple EDI standards exist
e) it is difficult to make quick changes
c
82) The primary goal of extranets is to do which of the following?
a) foster collaboration between and among business partners
b) to provide security for corporate intranets
c) to provide effective communications inside corporate intranets
d) to enable corporate employees to view inventory information for their companies
e) to enable business partners to better plan mergers and acquisitions
a
83) Extranets use _____ technology to make communication over the Internet more secure.
a) telepresence
b) anti-malware
c) virtual private network
d) voice-over IP
e) videoconferencing
c
84) The FedEx extranet that allows customers to track the status of a package is an example of which type of extranet?
a) a company and its dealers, customers, and/or suppliers
b) an industry’s extranet
c) joint venture
d) B2B exchange
e) B2C exchange
a
85) _____ portals automate the business processes involved in purchasing products between a single buyer and multiple suppliers.
a) Distribution
b) Corporate
c) Affiliate
d) Intranet
e) Procurement
e
19) _____ is the process by which organizational goals are achieved through the use of organizational resources.
a) Organizational decision making
b) Operations
c) Organizational strategy
d) Organizational productivity
e) Management
e
20) Which of the following is not a basic role of managers?
a) interpersonal
b) entrepreneurial
c) informational
d) decisional
e) processor
e
21) Being a figurehead and leader is part of the _____ managerial role.
a) interpersonal
b) entrepreneurial
c) informational
d) decisional
e) confrontational
a
22) Being an entrepreneur, disturbance handler, and negotiator is part of the _____ managerial role.
a) interpersonal
b) entrepreneurial
c) informational
d) decisional
e) confrontational
d
23) In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers examine a situation and identify and define the problem.
a) implementation
b) choice
c) design
d) intelligence
e) consideration
d
24) In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers construct a model that simplifies the problem.
a) implementation
b) choice
c) design
d) intelligence
e) consideration
c
25) Success in the _____ phase of the decision-making process results in resolving the original problem, and failure leads to a return to previous phases.
a) implementation
b) choice
c) design
d) intelligence
e) consideration
a
26) In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers test potential solutions “on paper.”
a) implementation
b) choice
c) design
d) intelligence
e) consideration
b
27) Which of the following is not a reason why managers need IT support?
a) The number of alternatives is decreasing.
b) Decisions must typically be made under time pressure.
c) Decisions are becoming more complex.
d) There is a growing need to access remote information sources.
e) Decision makers are often based in different locations.
a
28) Decisions today are becoming _____ complex, due to _____ uncertainty in the decision environment.
a) less, decreased
b) more, decreased
c) less, increased
d) more, increased
e) neither more nor less, decreased
d
29) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a structured decision?
a) It is routine.
b) It is repetitive.
c) Human intuition is not involved.
d) The first three phases of the decision-making process need not occur in any particular sequence
e) Standard solutions exist.
d
30) The type of decision that can be made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ______ decision.
a) structured
b) unstructured
c) undocumented
d) semistructured
e) procedural
a
31) ________ decisions are more common at lower organizational levels.
a) Structured
b) Unstructured
c) Undocumented
d) Semistructured
e) Procedural
a
32) Rank-and-file employees tend to make more _________ decisions.
a) Structured
b) Unstructured
c) Undocumented
d) Semistructured
e) Procedural
a
33) Calculating gross pay for hourly workers is an example of ________ decision making.
a) Structured
b) Unstructured
c) Undocumented
d) Semistructured
e) Procedural
a
34) Which of the following is not a characteristic of unstructured decisions?
a) They are complex.
b) They typically are fuzzy and unclear.
c) Standard solutions exist.
d) Human intuition is involved.
e) The first three phases of the decision-making process occur in no particular sequence.
c
35) When there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, the decision is said to be:
a) undocumented
b) structured
c) unstructured
d) semistructured
e) documented
c
36) A large foreign automobile manufacturer is considering where to build a new manufacturing plant in the United States. They are making which type of decision?
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) informational
e) wisdom
c
37) Which type of decision requires a combination of standard solution procedures and individual judgment?
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) informational
e) wisdom
b
38) A company’s annual employee evaluation best fits which type of decision?
a) unstructured
b) structured
c) semistructured
d) confrontational
e) wisdom
c
39) _____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.
a) Operational control
b) Management control
c) Strategic planning
d) Expertise
e) Wisdom
a
40) _____ is the acquisition and efficient use of resources in accomplishing organizational goals.
a) Operational control
b) Management control
c) Strategic planning
d) Expertise
e) Wisdom
b
41) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?
a) semistructured and strategic planning
b) unstructured and operational control
c) structured and operational control
d) semistructured and management control
e) structured and management control
c
42) Computer support is least for which of the following problems?
a) semistructured and strategic planning
b) unstructured and strategic planning
c) semistructured and management control
d) unstructured and operational control
e) structured and strategic planning
b
43) Searching for valuable business information in a database, data warehouse, or data mart is referred to as _____.
a) structured queries
b) database queries
c) data mining
d) query by example
e) expert system queries
c
44) _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, whereas _____ addresses why it is happening.
a) Multidimensional data analysis, structured query language
b) Data mining, multidimensional data analysis
c) Data mining, expert system
d) Multidimensional data analysis, neural networks
e) Multidimensional data analysis, data mining
e
45) Credit card companies would most likely use which of the following to check for fraudulent credit card use?
a) Data mining
b) Expert systems
c) Neural networks
d) Multidimensional data analysis
e) Structured query language
a
46) A company wants to use data from past promotional mailings to identify people who would likely respond favorably to future mailings. This company would most likely use:
a) structured query language
b) multidimensional data analysis
c) neural networks
d) expert systems
e) data mining
e
47) Which of the following is not a characteristic of DSSs?
a) They support only lower- and middle-level managers.
b) They are easy to use and construct.
c) They can adapt to changing conditions.
d) They usually utilize quantitative models.
e) They support all phases of the decision-making process.
a
48) At the end of a semester, a student knows that she must achieve a grade of 81 or higher on her final exam to get an A in the course. She has just performed what kind of analysis?
a) What-if
b) Qualitative
c) Sensitivity
d) Goal-seeking
e) Simulation
d
49) _____ attempts to find the value of the inputs necessary to achieve a desired level of output.
a) What-if analysis
b) Qualitative analysis
c) Sensitivity analysis
d) Goal-seeking analysis
e) Simulation
d
50) Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational decision support systems?
a) They affect multiple organizational units or corporate issues.
b) They cut across organizational functions or hierarchical layers.
c) They involve computer-based technologies.
d) They are standalone systems.
e) They involve communications technologies.
d
51) A(n) _____ provides rapid access to timely information and direct access to management reports.

a) decision support system
b) expert system
c) neural network
d) digital dashboard
e) data warehouse

d
52) Which capability of digital dashboards enables users to obtain the latest data available on key performance indicators or some other metric, ideally in real time?
a) Drill-down
b) Key performance indicators
c) Status access
d) Trend analysis
e) Exception reporting
c
53) Which of the following information systems are very user friendly, supported by graphics, and provide exception reporting and drill down?
a) decision support systems
b) digital dashboards
c) functional area information systems
d) group decision support systems
e) expert systems
b
54) Digital dashboards provide all of the following capabilities except:
a) drill-down
b) transaction processing
c) status access
d) key performance indicators
e) exception reporting
b
55) The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?
a) decision support system
b) expert system
c) digital dashboard
d) functional area information system
e) group decision support system
c
56) The primary distinguishing characteristic of geographical information systems is:
a) every record or digital object has a unique identifier
b) every record or digital object is visible to the user
c) every record or digital object must be accessed by programmers
d) every record or digital object has an identified geographical location
e) every record or digital object is encrypted
d
7) Geocoding involves:
a) integrating maps with spatially oriented databases and other databases
b) encrypting spatial information
c) accessing geographical information
d) integrating organizational transactions with spatially oriented databases
e) programming spatially oriented databases
a
58) Today, geographical information systems are being combined with _____ to form geospatial technologies.
a) dashboards
b) global positioning systems
c) decision support systems
d) expert systems
e) neural networks
b
Which of the following statements about determining the costs and benefits of IT investments is false?
A. Some costs are fixed.
B. Costs do not end when the system is installed.
C. Many IT projects end up being over budget.
D. Benefits are hard to quantify because implementing new technology could be used for multiple purposes.
E. Benefits are hard to quantify because they are tangible.
e
1. IT applications can be developed in which of the following ways?
a) build the system in-house
b) buy an application and install it
c) lease software from an application service provider
d) outsource it
e) all of the above
e
2. The information systems planning process proceeds in which order?
a) organization mission – organization strategic plan – IS strategic plan – new IT architecture
b) organization mission – IS strategic plan – organization strategic plan – IS operational plan
c) organization strategic plan – organization mission – IS strategic plan – new IT architecture
d) IT architecture – IS strategic plan – organization strategic plan – organization mission
e) IS development projects – IS operational plan – new IT architecture – organization mission
a
3. A typical IS operational plan contains which of the following elements?
a) mission of the IS function
b) summary of the information needs of the functional areas and of the entire organization
c) IS function’s estimate of its goals
d) application portfolio
e) all of the above
e
4. Which of the following is not a part of the typical IS operational plan?
a) mission of the IS function
b) organizational mission
c) IT architecture
d) application portfolio
e) IS function’s estimate of its goals
b
5. Evaluating the benefits of IT projects is more complex than evaluating their costs for which of the following reasons?
a) benefits are harder to quantify
b) benefits are often intangible
c) IT can be used for several different purposes
d) probability of obtaining a return from an IT investment is based on the probability of implementation success
e) all of the above
e
6. Evaluating the benefits of IT projects is more complex than evaluating their costs for all of the following reasons except:
a) benefits are harder to quantify
b) benefits are often tangible
c) IT can be used for several different purposes
d) probability of obtaining a return from an IT investment is based on the probability of implementation success
b
7. The _____ method converts future values of benefits to today’s value by “discounting” them at the organization’s cost of funds.
a) net present value
b) cost-benefit analysis
c) return on investment
d) internal rate of return
e) business case approach
a
8. The _____ method measures the effectiveness of management in generating profits with its available assets.
a) net present value
b) cost-benefit analysis
c) return on investment
d) internal rate of return
e) business case approach
c
9. Which of the following are advantages of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?
a) many different types of off-the-shelf software are available
b) software can be tried out
c) saves time
d) company will know what it is getting
e) all of the above
e
10. Which of the following is not an advantage of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?
a) few types of off-the-shelf software are available, thus limiting confusion
b) software can be tried out
c) saves time
d) company will know what it is getting
e) all of the above
a
11. Which of the following are disadvantages of the buy option for acquiring IS applications?
a) software may not exactly meet the company’s needs
b) software may be impossible to modify
c) company will not have control over software improvements
d) software may not integrate with existing systems
e) all of the above
e
12. Which of the following systems acquisition methods results in software that can be tried out, has been used for similar problems in other organizations, and can save time?
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) buy option
e) object-oriented development
d
13. Which of the following systems acquisition methods results in software that is controlled by another company, may be difficult to enhance or modify, and may not support desired business processes?
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) buy option
e) component-based development
d
14. Which of the following systems acquisition methods forces staff to systematically go through every step in the development process and has a lower probability of missing important user requirements?
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) external acquisition
e) object-oriented development
a
15. Which of the following systems acquisition methods is time-consuming, costly, and may produce excessive documentation?
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) external acquisition
e) object-oriented development
a
16. Place the stages of the systems development life cycle in order:
a) investigation – analysis – design – programming – testing – implementation – operation – maintenance
b) investigation – design – analysis – programming – testing – implementation – maintenance – operation
c) analysis – design – investigation – operation – maintenance – programming – testing – implementation
d) investigation – analysis – design – programming – testing – maintenance – operation – implementation
a
17. The feasibility study addresses which of the following issues?
a) economic feasibility
b) technical feasibility
c) behavioral feasibility
d) all of the above
d
18. The _____ that changes are made in the systems development life cycle, the _____ expensive these changes become.
a) sooner, less
b) later, less
c) more frequently, more
d) more extensively, more
e) sooner, more
a
19. ____ feasibility determines if the hardware, software, and communications components can be developed and/or acquired to solve the business problem.
a) technical
b) economic
c) organizational
d) behavioral
a
20. _____ feasibility determines if the project is an acceptable financial risk and if the organization can afford the expense and time needed to complete the project.
a) technical
b) economic
c) organizational
d) behavioral
b
21. _____ feasibility addresses the human issues of an information systems project.
a) technical
b) economic
c) organizational
d) behavioral
d
22. _____ feasibility concerns a firm’s policies and politics, power structures, and business relationships.
a) technical
b) economic
c) organizational
d) behavioral
c
23. Which of the following is not a part of systems analysis?
a) definition of the business problem
b) identification of the causes of, and solution to, the business problem
c) identification of the information requirements that the solution must satisfy
d) identification of the technical specifications of the solution
d
24. Systems analysts use which of the following techniques to obtain the information requirements for the new system?
a) direct observation
b) structured interviews
c) unstructured interviews
d) document analysis
e) all of the above
e
25. Which of the following is not a technique used to obtain the information requirements for the new system?
a) direct observation
b) structured interviews
c) unstructured interviews
d) use the system themselves
e) document analysis
d
26. Which of the following are problems associated with eliciting information requirements?
a) business problem may be poorly defined
b) users may not know exactly what the business problem is
c) users may disagree with each other
d) the problem may not be related to information systems
e) all of the above
e
27. _____ is the systems development stage that determines how the information system will do what is
needed to solve the business problem.
a) systems design
b) systems analysis
c) systems implementation
d) systems development
e) operation and maintenance
a
28. Logical systems design refers to _____, while physical systems design refers to _____.
a) the collection of user requirements, the development of software
b) what the system will do, how the tasks are accomplished
c) how the tasks are accomplished, what the system will do
d) the order of task accomplishment, how the tasks are accomplished
e) operation of the system, debugging the system
b
29. Systems design answers the question, _____:
a) How will the information system do what it must to obtain a solution to the business problem?
b) Why must the information system do what it must to obtain a solution to the business problem?
c) What is the problem the information system must address?
d) Who will benefit from use of the information system being developed?
e) What is the effective operational life of the system?
a
30. When users ask for added functionality during a systems development project, this is called:
a) user-defined software
b) scope creep
c) bloatware
d) out-of-control project
e) runaway project
b
31. Structured design advocates the use of software modules. Which of the following items are advantages of this approach?
a) modules can be reused
b) modules cost less to develop
c) modules are easier to modify
d) all of the above
d
32. Structured programming includes which of the following restrictions?
a) each module has one, and only one, function
b) each module has one entrance and one exit
c) no GOTO statements allowed
d) has only three techniques: sequence, decision, loop
e) all of the above
d
33. Which of the following is not a restriction of structured programming?
a) each module has multiple functions
b) each module has one entrance and one exit
c) no GOTO statements allowed
d) has only three techniques: sequence, decision, loop
e) none of the above
a
34. In structured programming’s _____ structure, the logic flow branches depending on certain conditions being met.
a) decision
b) sequence
c) decision
d) return
e) parallel
a
35. In structured programming’s _____ structure, the software executes the same program, or parts of it, until certain conditions are met.
a) decision
b) sequence
c) decision
d) return
e) parallel
c
36. _____conversion is the process where the old system and the new system operate simultaneously for a period of time.
a) parallel
b) direct
c) pilot
d) phased
a
37. _____ conversion is the process where the old system is cut off and the new system is turned on at a certain point in time.
a) parallel
b) direct
c) pilot
d) phased
b
38. _____ conversion is the process where the new system is introduced in one part of the organization.
a) parallel
b) direct
c) pilot
d) phased
c
39. _____ conversion is the process where components of the new system are introduced in stages.
a) parallel
b) direct
c) pilot
d) phased
d
40. The riskiest type of conversion process is:
a) parallel
b) direct
c) pilot
d) phased
b
41. If a firm shuts down its old COBOL legacy system and starts up the new PeopleSoft ERP system immediately, this is called _____:
a) phased conversion
b) direct conversion
c) parallel conversion
d) pilot conversion
b
42. As systems age, maintenance costs _____:
a) decrease
b) increase
c) stay the same
d) remain negligible
e) are not considered
b
43. Maintenance includes which of the following types of activities?
a) debugging
b) updating the system to accommodate changes in business conditions, but not adding functionality
c) adding new functionality to the system
d) all of the above
d
44. Which of the following systems acquisition methods helps clarify user requirements, promotes genuine user participation, and may produce part of the final system?
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) external acquisition
e) component-based development
b
45. Which of the following systems acquisition methods may encourage inadequate problem analysis, is not practical with large numbers of users, and may result in a system with lower quality.
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) external acquisition
e) component-based development
b
46. The _____ approach to systems development defines an initial list of user requirements, then develops the system in an iterative fashion.
a) integrated computer-assisted software engineering
b) joint application design
c) rapid application development
d) prototyping
e) systems development life cycle
d
47. The _____ approach to systems development is a group-based tool for collecting user requirements.
a) integrated computer-assisted software engineering
b) joint application design
c) rapid application development
d) prototyping
e) systems development life cycle
b
48. The _____ approach to systems development uses specialized tools to automate many of the tasks in the systems development life cycle.
a) integrated computer-assisted software engineering
b) joint application design
c) rapid application development
d) prototyping
a
49. Which of the following is not an advantage of the Joint Application Design approach to systems development?
a) involves fewer users in the development process
b) saves time
c) greater user acceptance of the new system
d) can produce a system of higher quality
a
50. Computer-aided software engineering tools provide which of the following advantages?
a) can produce systems with longer effective operational lives
b) can produce systems that more closely meet user requirements
c) can speed up the development process
d) can produce systems that are more adaptable to changing business conditions
e) all of the above
e
51. Which of the following is not an advantage of computer-aided software engineering tools?
a) can produce systems with longer effective operational lives
b) can produce systems that more closely meet user requirements
c) can require fewer developers
d) can speed up the development process
c
52. Computer-aided software engineering tools provide which of the following disadvantages?
a) produce initial systems that are more expensive to build and maintain
b) require more extensive and accurate definition of user requirements
c) difficult to customize
d) difficult to use with existing systems
e) all of the above
e
53. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of computer-aided software engineering tools?
a) produce initial systems that are more expensive to build and maintain
b) require more extensive and accurate definition of user requirements
c) require more developers
d) difficult to customize
c
54. Advantages of Rapid Application Development include which of the following?
a) active involvement of users in the development process
b) faster development process
c) system better meets user needs
d) reduction in training costs
e) all of the above
e
55. Which of the following systems acquisition methods bypasses the IT department, avoids delays, and results in increased user acceptance of the new system?
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) external acquisition
e) component-based development
c
56. Which of the following systems acquisition methods may eventually require maintenance assistance from the IT department, produce inadequate documentation, and result in a system with inadequate interfaces to existing systems?
a) systems development life cycle
b) prototyping
c) end-user development
d) external acquisition
e) component-based development
c
57. Which of the following is the most difficult and crucial task in evaluating a vendor and a software package?
a) identifying potential vendors
b) determining the evaluation criteria
c) evaluating vendors and packages
d) choosing the vendor and package
e) negotiating a contract
b